I have heard this so many times, and never really stopped to consider what it meant. But one day, I did. And you know, it got me thinking.
The US Constitution guarantees freedom of religion with the intent of not putting one religion above any other. (Read Jefferson's autobiography on the attempt to have the words "Jesus Christ" put into the preamble of the VA State constitution and why it was soundly defeated.) Yet the first commandment says, "Thou shalt have no other gods before me." How is it possible to allow freedom of religion and yet honor this commandment? How is it possible to say, "I give equal status to every faith" and yet remain faithful to the Christian belief that Christianity is the only true faith? The Bible teaches that those who marry nonbelievers are "unequally yoked". Unequal, by definition, implies that one is greater than the other. Christianity's basic tenet is that it is the only true faith. It is the Christian's duty, according to many, to convert everyone else to Christianity. Please explain to me how this is in keeping with the founding fathers' goal of respecting all faiths.
The US Constitution guarantees equality for all. Yet Biblical principals teach that women must not hold authority over men. It also teaches that slavery is acceptable and instructs Christians how to treat slaves. Please explain to me how this is in keeping with the founding fathers' goal of equality for all.
Most of the "Biblical principles" called the Ten Commandments are nothing but specific instances of the Golden Rule. You honor your father and mother because you want your kids to honor you when you are a parent. You don't murder because you don't want to be murdered. You don't commit adultery because you don't want your spouse cheating on you. You don't steal because you don't want to be stolen from. You don't lie because you don't want to be lied to. All of these "Biblical principles" are simply another way of saying "do unto others as you would have them do unto you."
"This is the sum of duty. Do not unto others that which would cause you pain if done to you."—Mahabharata 5:1517, from the Vedic tradition of India, circa 3000 BC.
As you can see, the Golden Rule PREDATES Christianity. It even predates the first appearance in Judaism by 1700 years.
"What is hateful to you, do not to our fellow man. That is entire Law, all the rest is commentary."—Talmud, Shabbat 31a, from the Judaic tradition, circa 1300 BC
"Therefore all things whatsoever you desire that men should do to you, do you even so to them. For this is the Law and the prophets."— New Testament, Matthew 7:12, from the Christian tradition, circa 30 AD
this list of the chronological order of the history of the Golden Rule.)
So someone please explain to me how this country is founded on Biblical principles when the Biblical principles themselves are founded on traditions much older than Christianity and even Judaism?